Flight Prep Part 1

This is a personal study test to help me study. You can take it if you are interested in flying and if you do well, I recommend you try getting your private pilots license. Have fun taking it and good luck!

Created by: sfrankie08

1. What is your age?
Under 18 Years Old
18 to 24 Years Old
25 to 30 Years Old
31 to 40 Years Old
41 to 50 Years Old
51 to 60 Years Old
Over 60 Years Old
2. What is your gender?
Male
Female
3. The term "angle of attack" is defined as the angle
between the wing chord line and the relative wind.
between the airplane's climb angle and the horizon.
formed by the longitudinal axis of the airplane and thechord line of the wing.
4. During a spin to the left, which wing(s) is/are stalled?
Both wings are stalled.
Neither wing is stalled.
Only the left wing is stalled.
5. What must a pilot be aware of as a result of ground effect?
Wingtip vertices increase creating wake turbulence problems for arriving and departing aircraft.
Induced drag decreases; therefore, any excess speed at the point of flare may cause considerable floating.
A full stall will require less up elevator deflection than would a full stall when done free of ground effect.
6. Which instrument(s) will become inoperative if the static vents become clogged?
Airspeed only.
Altimeter only.
Airspeed, altimeter, and vertical speed.
7. What is true altitude?
The vertical distance of the aircraft above sea level.
The vertical distance of the aircraft above the surface.
The height above the standard datum plane.
8. What is density altitude?
The height above the standard datum plane.
The pressure altitude corrected for nonstandard temperature.
The altitude read directly from the atlimeter.
9. If a pilot changes the altimeter setting from 30.11 to 29.96, what is the approximate change in indication?
Altimeter will indicate .15" Hg higher.
Altimeter will indicate 150 feet higher.
Altimeter will indicate 150 feet lower.
10. If a flight is made from an area of high pressure into an area of lower pressure without the altimeter setting being adjusted, the altimeter will indicate
lower than the actual altitude above sea level.
higher than the actual altitude above sea level.
the actual altitude above sea level.
11. How is engine operation controlled on an engine equipped with a constant-speed propeller?
The throttle controls power output as registered on the manifold pressure gauge and the propeller control regulates engine RPM.
The throttle controls power output as registered on the manifold pressure gauge and the propeller control regulates a constant blade angle.
The throttle controls engine RPM as registered on the tachometer and the mixture control regulates the power output.
12. Which condition is most favorable to the development of carburetor icing?
Any temperature below freezing and a relative humididty of less than 50 percent.
Temperature between 32 degrees F and 50 degrees F and low humidity.
Temperature between 20 degrees F and 70 degrees F and high humidity.
13. Generally speaking, the use of carburetor heat tends to
decrease engine performance.
increase engine performance.
have no effect on engine performance.
14. What should be the first action after starting an aircraft engine?
Adjust for proper RPM and check for desired indications on the engine gauges.
Place the magneto or ignition switch momentarily in the OFF position to check for proper grounding.
Test each brake and the parking brake.
15. (Refer to Figure 51 on page 70.) If the wind is as shown by the landing direction indicator, the pilot should land on
Runway 18 and expect a crosswind from the right.
Runway 22 directly into the wind.
Runway 36 and expect a crosswind from the right.
16. When approaching to land on a runway served by a visual approach slope indicator (VASI), the pilot shall
maintain an altitude that captures the glide slope at least 2 miles downwind from the runway threshold.
maintain an altitude at or above the glide slope.
remain on the glide slope and land between the two-light bar.
17. Wingtip vortices are created only when an aircraft is
operating at high speeds.
heavily loaded.
developing lift.
18. The greatest vortex strength occurs when the generating aircraft is
light, dirty, and fast.
heavy, dirty, and fast.
heavy, clean, and slow.
19. If instructed by ground control to taxi to Runway 9, the pilot may proceed
via taxiways and across runways to, but not onto, Runway 9.
to the next interseting runway where further clearance is required.
via taxiways and across runways to Runway 9, where an immediate takeoff may be made.
20. Airspace at an airport with a part-time control tower is classified as Class D airspace only
when the weather minimums are below basic VFR.
when the associated control tower is in operation.
when the associated Flight Service Station is in operation.
21. Under what condition may an aircraft operate from a satellite airport within Class C airspace?
The pilot must file a flight plan prior to departure.
The pilot must monitor ATC until clear of the Class C airspace.
The pilot must contact ATC as soon as practicable after takeoff.
22. When making routine transponder code changes, pilots should avoid inadvertent selection of which codes?
0700, 1700, 7000.
1200, 1500, 7000.
7500, 7600, 7700.
23. With respect to the certification of airmen, which is a category of aircraft?
Gyroplane, helicopter, airship, free balloon.
Airplane, rotorcraft, glider, lighter-than-air.
Single engine land and sea, multiengine land and sea.
24. Which V-speed represents maximum flap extended speed?
Vfe
Vlof
Vfc
25. How long does the Airworthiness Certificate of an aircraft remain valid?
As long as the aircraft has a current Registration Certificate.
As long as the aircraft has a current Registration Certificate.
As long as the aircraft is maintained and operated as required by Federal Aviation Regulations.
26. What is the definition of a high-performance airplane?
An airplane with 180 horsepower, or retractable landing gear, flaps, and a fixed-pitch propeller.
An airplane with a normal cruise speed in excess of 200 knots.
An airplane with an engine of more than 200 horsepower.
27. The pilot in command is required to hold a type rating in which aircraft?
Aircraft operated under an authorization issued by the Administration.
Aircraft having a gross weight of more than 12,500 pounds.
Aircraft involved in ferry flights, training flights, or test flights.
28. Which preflight action is specifically required of the pilot prior to each flight?
Check the aircraft logbooks for appropriate entries.
Become familiar with all available information concerning the flight.
Review wake turbulence avoidance procedures.
29. Which best describes the flight conditions under which flight crewmembers are specifically required to keep their safety belts and shoulder harnesses fastened?
Safety belts during takeoff and landing; shoulder harnesses during takeoff and landing.
Safety belts during takeoff and landing; shoulder harnesses during takeoff and landing and while en route.
Safety belts during takeoff and landing and while en route; shoulder harnesses during takeoff and landing.
30. A seaplane and a motorboat are on crossing courses. If the motorboat is to the left of the seaplane, which has the right-of-way?
The motorboat.
The seaplane.
Both should alter course to the right.
31. During operations outside controlled airspace at altitudes of more than 1,200 feet AGL, but less than 10,000 feet MSL, the minimum flight visibility for VFR flight at night is
1 mile.
3 miles.
5 miles.
32. According to regulations pertaining to privileges and limitations, a private pilot may
be paid for the operating expenses of a flight if at least three takeoffs and three landings were made by the pilot within the preceding 90 days.
not pay less than the pro rata share of the operating expenses of a flight with passengers provided the expenses involve only fuel, oil, airport expenditures, or rental fees.
not be paid in any manner for the operating expenses of a flight.

1. What is your age?

Under 18 Years Old

18 to 24 Years Old

25 to 30 Years Old

31 to 40 Years Old

41 to 50 Years Old

51 to 60 Years Old

Over 60 Years Old

2. What is your gender?

Male

Female

3. The term "angle of attack" is defined as the angle

between the wing chord line and the relative wind.

between the airplane's climb angle and the horizon.

formed by the longitudinal axis of the airplane and thechord line of the wing.

4. During a spin to the left, which wing(s) is/are stalled?

Both wings are stalled.

Neither wing is stalled.

Only the left wing is stalled.

5. What must a pilot be aware of as a result of ground effect?

Wingtip vertices increase creating wake turbulence problems for arriving and departing aircraft.

Induced drag decreases; therefore, any excess speed at the point of flare may cause considerable floating.

A full stall will require less up elevator deflection than would a full stall when done free of ground effect.

6. Which instrument(s) will become inoperative if the static vents become clogged?

Airspeed only.

Altimeter only.

Airspeed, altimeter, and vertical speed.

7. What is true altitude?

The vertical distance of the aircraft above sea level.

The vertical distance of the aircraft above the surface.

The height above the standard datum plane.

8. What is density altitude?

The height above the standard datum plane.

The pressure altitude corrected for nonstandard temperature.

The altitude read directly from the atlimeter.

9. If a pilot changes the altimeter setting from 30.11 to 29.96, what is the approximate change in indication?

Altimeter will indicate .15" Hg higher.

Altimeter will indicate 150 feet higher.

Altimeter will indicate 150 feet lower.

10. If a flight is made from an area of high pressure into an area of lower pressure without the altimeter setting being adjusted, the altimeter will indicate

lower than the actual altitude above sea level.

higher than the actual altitude above sea level.

the actual altitude above sea level.

11. How is engine operation controlled on an engine equipped with a constant-speed propeller?

The throttle controls power output as registered on the manifold pressure gauge and the propeller control regulates engine RPM.

The throttle controls power output as registered on the manifold pressure gauge and the propeller control regulates a constant blade angle.

The throttle controls engine RPM as registered on the tachometer and the mixture control regulates the power output.

12. Which condition is most favorable to the development of carburetor icing?

Any temperature below freezing and a relative humididty of less than 50 percent.

Temperature between 32 degrees F and 50 degrees F and low humidity.

Temperature between 20 degrees F and 70 degrees F and high humidity.

13. Generally speaking, the use of carburetor heat tends to

decrease engine performance.

increase engine performance.

have no effect on engine performance.

14. What should be the first action after starting an aircraft engine?

Adjust for proper RPM and check for desired indications on the engine gauges.

Place the magneto or ignition switch momentarily in the OFF position to check for proper grounding.

Test each brake and the parking brake.

15. (Refer to Figure 51 on page 70.) If the wind is as shown by the landing direction indicator, the pilot should land on

Runway 18 and expect a crosswind from the right.

Runway 22 directly into the wind.

Runway 36 and expect a crosswind from the right.

16. When approaching to land on a runway served by a visual approach slope indicator (VASI), the pilot shall

maintain an altitude that captures the glide slope at least 2 miles downwind from the runway threshold.

maintain an altitude at or above the glide slope.

remain on the glide slope and land between the two-light bar.

17. Wingtip vortices are created only when an aircraft is

operating at high speeds.

heavily loaded.

developing lift.

18. The greatest vortex strength occurs when the generating aircraft is

light, dirty, and fast.

heavy, dirty, and fast.

heavy, clean, and slow.

19. If instructed by ground control to taxi to Runway 9, the pilot may proceed

via taxiways and across runways to, but not onto, Runway 9.

to the next interseting runway where further clearance is required.

via taxiways and across runways to Runway 9, where an immediate takeoff may be made.

20. Airspace at an airport with a part-time control tower is classified as Class D airspace only

when the weather minimums are below basic VFR.

when the associated control tower is in operation.

when the associated Flight Service Station is in operation.

21. Under what condition may an aircraft operate from a satellite airport within Class C airspace?

The pilot must file a flight plan prior to departure.

The pilot must monitor ATC until clear of the Class C airspace.

The pilot must contact ATC as soon as practicable after takeoff.

22. When making routine transponder code changes, pilots should avoid inadvertent selection of which codes?

0700, 1700, 7000.

1200, 1500, 7000.

7500, 7600, 7700.

23. With respect to the certification of airmen, which is a category of aircraft?

Gyroplane, helicopter, airship, free balloon.

Airplane, rotorcraft, glider, lighter-than-air.

Single engine land and sea, multiengine land and sea.

24. Which V-speed represents maximum flap extended speed?

Vfe

Vlof

Vfc

25. How long does the Airworthiness Certificate of an aircraft remain valid?

As long as the aircraft has a current Registration Certificate.

As long as the aircraft is maintained and operated as required by Federal Aviation Regulations.

26. What is the definition of a high-performance airplane?

An airplane with 180 horsepower, or retractable landing gear, flaps, and a fixed-pitch propeller.

An airplane with a normal cruise speed in excess of 200 knots.

An airplane with an engine of more than 200 horsepower.

27. The pilot in command is required to hold a type rating in which aircraft?

Aircraft operated under an authorization issued by the Administration.

Aircraft having a gross weight of more than 12,500 pounds.

Aircraft involved in ferry flights, training flights, or test flights.

28. Which preflight action is specifically required of the pilot prior to each flight?

Check the aircraft logbooks for appropriate entries.

Become familiar with all available information concerning the flight.

Review wake turbulence avoidance procedures.

29. Which best describes the flight conditions under which flight crewmembers are specifically required to keep their safety belts and shoulder harnesses fastened?

Safety belts during takeoff and landing; shoulder harnesses during takeoff and landing.

Safety belts during takeoff and landing; shoulder harnesses during takeoff and landing and while en route.

Safety belts during takeoff and landing and while en route; shoulder harnesses during takeoff and landing.

30. A seaplane and a motorboat are on crossing courses. If the motorboat is to the left of the seaplane, which has the right-of-way?

The motorboat.

The seaplane.

Both should alter course to the right.

31. During operations outside controlled airspace at altitudes of more than 1,200 feet AGL, but less than 10,000 feet MSL, the minimum flight visibility for VFR flight at night is

1 mile.

3 miles.

5 miles.

32. According to regulations pertaining to privileges and limitations, a private pilot may

be paid for the operating expenses of a flight if at least three takeoffs and three landings were made by the pilot within the preceding 90 days.

not pay less than the pro rata share of the operating expenses of a flight with passengers provided the expenses involve only fuel, oil, airport expenditures, or rental fees.

not be paid in any manner for the operating expenses of a flight.

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Flight Prep Part 1

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